What does ‘lease to own’ or ‘rent to own’ mean?
Some home owners rent their property with the option of lease to own. A part of the rent goes towards the actual rent, while a part of it goes towards the equity of the house. Is the renter supposed to buy the house after a couple of years (say 2 years) by paying one bulk amount towards the remainder equity? Or can the renter continue to pay small amounts towards the equity each month until (say in 20 years) he/she has 100% equity? I want to buy a house eventually but I do not want to finance from bank. I want to keep paying small amounts from the rent towards equity directly to the owner. Do some landlords make agreements like that? My landlord wants to sell me her house, so I want to ask her if she will make an agreement like this with me. THank you in advance for your responses!
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Tags: Landlords, Remainder, rent property
rent property | , 26 May 10
By auntb93, May 28, 2010 @ 6:40 am
You effectively have two contracts: a rental agreement, and an option to buy. Usually the option is non-transferable. That is, if you do not exercise the option, you cannot sell it to someone else. A lot of times you exercise the option after you have paid long enough that a mortgage company is willing to give you a mortgage for the remainder, and you buy the house. Sometimes the owners like having that income, and they effectively hold the mortgage themselves.
If your landlady wants to sell you her house, why don’t the two of you go together to her lawyer’s office and discuss it. Seems like it ought to work.
By raj, May 28, 2010 @ 8:57 am
i think, lease to own means ” you buy a house and lease it on rent and pay from your pocket to bank untill home loan finished. Mostly, home value doble after 5-7 yrs. so, ur rich after that. rent to own means ” you live in it and pay to bank = rent + from your pocket”. same thing after some time it doubles and you are rich.
you can do this , if ur single and clever: buy a big house and rent it all except a small room for you. if still you are able to pay all loan amount without ur pocket. u have done that.
By Chihuahua Mom, May 31, 2010 @ 12:49 am
Typically lease to own is designed for you to rent the property for a designated time period. The rent payments are generally higher than the going rent in the area. The difference between the rent amt and the amt you pay should be applied toward the down payment. It is for you and your landlord to decide how long the period will be before you must exercise your option to purchase.
At the time you exercise your option to purchase some mortgage lenders may allow you to count the amt that exceeded the rent to be applied to the down payment in determining your amt actually invested. I suggest you retain all of your cancelled checks in order to show you have actually made these payments.
In some cases if you have been in the property more than 1-2 years the lender may also elect to treat the transaction as a refinance. You then will enjoy the benefit of a possible higher appraised value as opposed to the amt stated for purchase on your contract.
These guidelines vary from lender to lender and are always subject to change.
Your best bet is to contact a knowledgeable loan broker that represents numerous lenders to discuss what your options may be at the time you exercise your option. Again things will change but the knowledgeable loan officer should be able to guide you in a direction that you will benefit from down the road. Good Luck